The glucose reabsorption in the PCT in the kidneys of a Type 2 DM patient is not decreased, just simply maxed out, and SGLT2 cannot accomodate all the glucose, so it goes through into the urine. The answer implies reabsorption is decreased when it isn't.

While ETEC is known to be the primary cause of Traveler's diarrhea based on its watery characteristic, its heat-labile/stable enterotoxins do not cause inflammation or invasion. On the other hand, EIEC's microbes invade the intestinal mucosa, causing necrosis and inflammation similar to that of Shigella, which leads to watery diarrhea progressing to blood and mucus in the stool. Therefore, I think this question needs to be reviewed to reform the stem to point towards ETEC or change the answer choices.

I'm not seeing in any of my other resources that Tacrolimus is associated with the skin changes mentioned in this question, nor any of the other mentioned drugs. Could someone possibly explain or point me to a resource with this information?

She is having problems in The pasta month. And not over 6 months period

Hi everyone,

I’m deep into my USMLE Step 1 prep and honestly feeling a bit overwhelmed with the amount of material to cover. I’ve been following a study schedule using resources like First Aid and UWorld, but I still struggle with retaining the finer details, especially in biochemistry and microbiology.

For those who’ve successfully passed, how did you structure your daily study routine to balance breadth and depth without burning out? Did you focus more on high-yield review or thorough, slower learning?

I’ve used the practice tests from Passexam_4_sure — it seems promising, but I’m not sure how well it aligns with the real exam’s question style and difficulty.

Any advice on managing time effectively, staying consistent, and knowing when you’re “ready” would be greatly appreciated.

Thanks in advance — I know this community has a wealth of experience, and I’m eager to learn from you all.

Beta-3 adrenergic agonists, like mirabegron and vibegron, are indicated in overactive bladder (OAB) in adults, not beta-2 agonists.

Wrong answer. In this clinical scenario, hydrochlorothiazide is the most likely candidate for discontinuation.

McArdle disease is not associated with hyperglycemia; on the contrary, it is often associated with hypoglycemia during exercise.

Horner syndrome is not significantly associated with vision loss. There may only be a slight visual field impairment due to the ptosis and some difficulty seeing in low-light environments( miosis). Therefore, the clinical presentation of vision loss described in the question doesn't correspond to this diagnosis.

mech by which EP induces HTN

• inhibits Ach induced vasodialation vaso dialation
• platelet aggregates
• increased levels of Endothelin -1

renal cell carcinoma - increased EP

Let’s discuss this question? In detail?

I am not sure if C3 complement will arise in this case! For me, it will decrease.

It says the urine has increased osmolality and plasma decreased osmolality, but in DI, when there is no ADH it should be the opposite, urine diluted and plasma concentrated. Please give feedback

No murmur or abnormalities that suggest vavulopathy.

The spina bifida occurs in a Higher rate in this population...

Might be usefull to measure new cases because talks about speed

if secretion is increased, phosphate levels then should be decreased, not increased like the vignette said, it is wrong

Why is it pneumoconiosis if the patient has no history of smoking and works in a textile factory?

Just need to go through with this disease

Hi everyone

My name is Fortune

I'm an IMG from Nigeria and 2 years away from graduation

I'm looking to specialise in paediatrics neonatology

I’m thrilled to share that I passed the USMLE Step 1 exam last night, and I couldn’t be happier! 🎉

I’ve been a silent observer in this community, absorbing all the advice and motivation, but now it feels like the perfect moment to give back. The tips, study strategies, and shared experiences here were incredibly valuable during my journey.

Here’s how I did it: I started studying intensively about six weeks ago, dedicating every available moment to preparing. My primary resources were First Aid, UWorld, and some well-chosen practice exams. Yesterday, on a bit of a whim, I decided to book the exam last-minute—and thankfully, it all worked out!

For anyone preparing, I can’t emphasize enough the importance of practice tests. They not only helped me identify my weak areas but also got me comfortable with the question style and pacing of the actual exam. Practice exams truly made a massive difference in my confidence and readiness.

A huge thank you to everyone in this community who shared their study tips and experiences—it made a world of difference! Next up, I’m thinking about starting prep for Step 2 CK. Onward and upward! 🚀

Good luck to everyone on their USMLE journey—you’ve got this! 💪

Struvite stones, form only when the upper urinary tract is infected with urease-producing bacteria such as Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Staphylococcus,

saprophyticus.

.

You certainly can calcúlate the positive predictive value, you have 85% of the deseased that tested positive, so they are true positives, you also have 15% that tested positive but have no symptoms so they are false positive, since PPV= TP/TP+FP x 100, then you have all the information you need in order to obra in the positive predictive value, so i think tour answer might be wrong..

A 58-year-old man presents with history of recurrent rashes that became severe in the last week. The rashes were erythematous with a fine, sandpaper-like texture. He also reports having a fever and symptoms of a sore throat two weeks prior to the rash. Examination reveals a 'strawberry tongue'. Based on the history and physical examination, what mechanism is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

correct answer: type 4 hypersensitivity

I picked the answer "direct toxins from bacterial exotoxins"

why is this type 4 hypersensitivity? please explain

The patient in this case is 70 years old. At this age, an corneal arcus is fairly common. Given the circumstances, FH would not be my first thought. If the patient was young (<50), hyperlipidemia/FH would be a more likely differential diagnosis.