The glucose reabsorption in the PCT in the kidneys of a Type 2 DM patient is not decreased, just simply maxed out, and SGLT2 cannot accomodate all the glucose, so it goes through into the urine. The answer implies reabsorption is decreased when it isn't.

While ETEC is known to be the primary cause of Traveler's diarrhea based on its watery characteristic, its heat-labile/stable enterotoxins do not cause inflammation or invasion. On the other hand, EIEC's microbes invade the intestinal mucosa, causing necrosis and inflammation similar to that of Shigella, which leads to watery diarrhea progressing to blood and mucus in the stool. Therefore, I think this question needs to be reviewed to reform the stem to point towards ETEC or change the answer choices.

I'm not seeing in any of my other resources that Tacrolimus is associated with the skin changes mentioned in this question, nor any of the other mentioned drugs. Could someone possibly explain or point me to a resource with this information?

She is having problems in The pasta month. And not over 6 months period

Hi everyone,

I’m deep into my USMLE Step 1 prep and honestly feeling a bit overwhelmed with the amount of material to cover. I’ve been following a study schedule using resources like First Aid and UWorld, but I still struggle with retaining the finer details, especially in biochemistry and microbiology.

For those who’ve successfully passed, how did you structure your daily study routine to balance breadth and depth without burning out? Did you focus more on high-yield review or thorough, slower learning?

I’ve used the practice tests from Passexam_4_sure — it seems promising, but I’m not sure how well it aligns with the real exam’s question style and difficulty.

Any advice on managing time effectively, staying consistent, and knowing when you’re “ready” would be greatly appreciated.

Thanks in advance — I know this community has a wealth of experience, and I’m eager to learn from you all.

Beta-3 adrenergic agonists, like mirabegron and vibegron, are indicated in overactive bladder (OAB) in adults, not beta-2 agonists.

Wrong answer. In this clinical scenario, hydrochlorothiazide is the most likely candidate for discontinuation.

McArdle disease is not associated with hyperglycemia; on the contrary, it is often associated with hypoglycemia during exercise.

Horner syndrome is not significantly associated with vision loss. There may only be a slight visual field impairment due to the ptosis and some difficulty seeing in low-light environments( miosis). Therefore, the clinical presentation of vision loss described in the question doesn't correspond to this diagnosis.

mech by which EP induces HTN

• inhibits Ach induced vasodialation vaso dialation
• platelet aggregates
• increased levels of Endothelin -1

renal cell carcinoma - increased EP

Let’s discuss this question? In detail?

I am not sure if C3 complement will arise in this case! For me, it will decrease.

It says the urine has increased osmolality and plasma decreased osmolality, but in DI, when there is no ADH it should be the opposite, urine diluted and plasma concentrated. Please give feedback

No murmur or abnormalities that suggest vavulopathy.

The spina bifida occurs in a Higher rate in this population...

Might be usefull to measure new cases because talks about speed

if secretion is increased, phosphate levels then should be decreased, not increased like the vignette said, it is wrong

Why is it pneumoconiosis if the patient has no history of smoking and works in a textile factory?

Just need to go through with this disease

Herpes Simplex Virus

Why is not Levodopa the right answer here?